French language Q&A Forum

Not entirely sure what this rule entails / under what circumstances it operates. 

Thanks in advance! 

Let me start by saying that I love Kwiziq! Kwiziq software and method are superior and indispensable.

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James

Dear all, some queries:

1. Could "I'd been certain" is translated as "je m'étais senti certain"  ?

2. Could "la chance n'était pas de mon côté" have been translated as "les chances n'étaient pas de mon côté" ?

3. Could "Nous serions ensuite allés dans sa nouvelle maison" be translated as "Nous serions allés ensuite à  sa maison neuve" ? Queries here about  "dans sa nouvelle maison" vs "à  sa maison neuve" and also about the position of "ensuite" in the sentence.

4. Could "que j'aurais fait meubler au préalable" be translated as "que j’aurais fourni en avance" ?

5. Could "au fil des ans" have been translated as "pendant les années" ?

Thanks in advance as always.

Thanks 

I read somewhere that ne ... pas and ne ...point were the first negative constructions in the evolution of the French language. I can just imagine someone trekking through the woods in Old French times and saying, "Not another step."  Or a tired monk in some scriptorium copying over an illegible text and saying, "Not another period."

Should "Montre-moi les mains!" really be considered wrong? I understand you put that in this lesson as an example of reducing ambiguity, with "tes mains", but I definitely don't see it as something to be taken as a wrong answer in a quiz.

If I'm correct, we do the exact same thing in Spanish, and both "Muéstrame tus manos" y "Muéstrame las manos" would be correct. There is no ambiguity whatsoever (i.e. no sane person would wonder whose hands we're asking the person to show). Is it really really different in French?

I mean, it is one thing to try to get students to answer what you taught them, and a very different thing to reject right answers (especially when this very same lesson covers using definite articles for this).