French language Q&A Forum

The ne explétif is always optional. In everyday speech it is a rarity, for sure, but even in writing it is optional. The omission of a ne explétif never results in incorrect grammar, and Le bon usage is replete with such examples taken from writers of the highest caliber, including a Nobel laureate in literature (Colette) and a member of the Académie française (Montherlant). Nevertheless kwiziq quizzes regard the omission of the ne explétif as an error. This is misleading.

Why is it « nouvel » and not « neuf » when the raincoat would be brand new from the store? I thought neuf is for new, never been used, and nouvel is for been used but still pretty new.

I used touchant in the above translation rather than the given "emue." I was wondering if there was a semantic or connatative difference between the two or are they interchangeable. 

When I see the sentence, She smells good, does it mean she smells good (because she doesn't have a cold and her nose is working normally) or it is because she just took a bath (and she doesn't stink?).  Do both these meanings work for Elle sent bon?

Bonjour! I saw that interdire was used as follows: "....interdit aux buralistes de..." My question is: why are we using "à" in this phrase? In Spanish, we use a personal "a" in front of people but I don't know if that's the case in French. Would be very grateful for an explanation, thanks!