French language Q&A Forum

Can someone please explain the use of 'se doit' in the following sentence which conveys the meaning "ought to":

"qui se doit d'être à la fois élégant et extraordinaire" 

I can't find any reference anywhere to devoir in the pronominal form....or am I totally on the wrong track here with 'devoir' ?

This was a question in the test and I chose the passé composé answer "Nous avons appris l'espagnol." because the action has no effect on the present. But the answer key said the imparfait answer "Nous apprenions l'espagnol." is correct choice. Why is that?

One example given is: Tu as vraiment des yeux de lynx !

I am confused about an answer.  The sentence 'Tu n'as pas habité ici depuis long temps' was marked incorrect and ´Tu n'habites pas ici depuis long temps' given as the correct answer. But in the corresponding lesson we are told that in an affirmative sentence with 'depuis' you use present tense but if it is a negative sentence, you use passé composé.  Where am I going wrong?

I would have expected 'un conte' to be a 'short story'. I was under the impression that 'Une nouvelle' tends to be a long short story. Thus 'Bel-Ami' is a 'roman', 'Boule de Suif' is a 'nouvelle' but 'Une Vendetta' is a 'conte'. What do you think/?

Eyes, Nose, lips, ears, palms of the hand? 

When the owner is a person, you can alternatively use "de qui" as well as dont:

Les enfants, de qui je connais la maman, sont bien élevés.

The children, whose mum I know, are well behaved.

Can I say that
Les enfants, de qui les pères sont riches, sont bien élevés.

The children, whose fathers are rich, are well behaved

I wish your helps...
Merci beaucoup

Hi, in English, "aren't you" can have a bit of an accusatory tone. Is it the same for "n'est-ce pas" in French?

I found this lesson really confusing.

You say derrivatives of paraître, but how am I to know that appraître isnt a derrivative?