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14,691 questions • 31,850 answers • 967,879 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,691 questions • 31,850 answers • 967,879 learners
I don't quite understand why "était" (imperfect) is used with "depuis." Is that because it is not longer his dream? Is is because the dream has been fulfilled? This dream does not continue?
In this example of passive voice for se faire gronder why does faite end in e? I thought fait was invariable when a past participle following a feminine/ plural direct object with avoir or following être as in this case.
J'ai manqué mon père.
Mon père me manque.
Is there a difference？
So, I've been listening to Ta Reine by Angele and I was wondering why in the line: Il lui faudra du temps, c'est sur, pour oublier tous ses prejuges Il and lui are right next to each other. Is it a thing where there's a direct pronoun before the verb? Or if it's something with grammar?
Thank you!
Isn't it odd to say she has French à trois heures (which is in the middle of the night?) Would it not be be more reasonable to say à très heures de l'après-midi or à treize heures?
Could be an improvement over the current phrasing. And -GUER doesn't need explanation as it fits the general rule as would -IER verbs.
When you say "Believe me," do you say, "vous me croyez" or "vous croyez en moi"? Are these the same thing?
It's a small point, but do French people write Ier with a capital I or 1er with a 1 ? Or either ?
What is the different between vos and votre?
In this exercise you prefer 'partir' (to go) over 'quitter' (to leave). But 'quitter' seems to be the more relevant in the context. Am I wrong?
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