French language Q&A Forum

"We might say Do you have any change?  but in French you cannot say Fais-tu avoir de la monnaie?" I understand this, but it is a non-sequitur where it currently sits, and seems a loose thread. It does not relate to the immediately forgoing discussion on use of n'est-ce pas, or any of the other ways of asking questions in this lesson. It is an inverted verb form sentence that would be better discussed in that lesson. It could do with clarification of the reason also - it reads more like a single exception  for 'la monnaie',  rather than that 'faire avoir' is not a compound verb expression used in French.

I've always learned that you would never say someone is "très excité", as it has a more sexual connotation. As a result, I've avoided saying this phrase for 13+ years.

Can you really say this without someone doing a double take? Or is there a better way to say this? 

Would it be possible to state that in writing structure, Spanish-French is more closely than English_French?

À quoi renvoie “Elle est vite de venir ma meilleure amie?”  Émile Zola?

Bonjour Madame Cécile !

While attempting this exercise on Le Subjonctif Présent, I had queries in the following sentence->

1. J'étais comme votre fils, jusqu'à ce qu'un jour, j'aille dans la bibliothèque de mon quartier,et que je me mette à dévorer les romans “Donjons & Dragons.

In this sentence, Madame, why is the Subjonctif used in the second blank ? Can’t it be “je me mets” ?

2. Oui, et j'ai peur que cela ne lui fasse un peu peur. 

Here, Madame, why does Mme. Aurélie use “cela”  instead of “il” when referring to a Harry Potter novel ?

Merci encore Madame ! 

Prenez soin de vous et restez en sécurité.

Bonne journée!

For "I usually sit down in a corner" I wrote "D'habitude, je m'assois dans un coin". None of the four suggested solutions included "D'habitude" (or variants). Was I just plain wrong?

Thanks in advance.

when speaking, would après avoir  sound like 'aprèsavoir' - I thought we should link such words, (hearing the 's') but the reader did not in this case.

This question relates to the use of avoir vs prendre in one of the test questions for the subjonctif linked to this forum. 

Question: "Ils n'auront pas de dessert à moins qu'ils ne fassent leurs lits".

I thought when talking about having a meal or a drink etc. the verb "prendre" was used - not avoir?

Bonjour,

I understand that reflexive verbs are used like in english like "myself, yourself, ect" but I don't understand how some of the examples above are actually doing something to oneself. For example, above it says Le prisonnier s'échappe de la prison. How is this an action to oneself? To escape oneself?? Or how about "Nous nous étonnons de ses bonnes notes."? We amaze ourselves? Why is it a reflexive verb and not just conjugated in le present? Thank you!