French language Q&A Forum

For "I won't write here all that I've done wrong", the answer uses the conditional "je n'écrirais pas ..." . Shouldn't we use the future tense in this sentence (i.e. "je n'écrirai pas ...")  ? Thanks.

I spent many dejected days trying to understand the following rule in this lesson. "the main difficulty here is that in French you cannot use a conjugated verb after la veille or le lendemain, unlike in English: the day after he left / the day before you were born.

Instead you will use de + noun, as such:'

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The imperative appeared out of the blue.  (I am not using imperative here in the grammar sense by the way but as a prohibitory order) It also seemed contradictory, because the sentence, 'The day after, I was enrolling at university/ Le lendemain, j'allais m'inscrire à l'université.    came right before it. ...a conjugated verb 'j allais' following lendemarin.

 What seems to be the case is that 'le lendemain'  or 'la veille' CANNOT be 'conjoined' with a descriptive clause or phrase for associated events  WITHOUT punctuation.  You identify the day using le lendemain or la veille but to add associated actions you must express them with a separate punctuated clause/phrase or use 'de + noun".

Examples:

the day after i was enrolling at university.../ le lendemain de mon inscription à l'université

the day after, I  was enrolling at university...Le lendemain, je m'inscrivais à l'université.

I am pretty sure I hear fière vice fier.

Am I correct that this can have two slightly different meanings in English: I like that you take your time and I like you to take your time? In the first instance, it is a fact that the person spoken to takes their time; in the second, the speaker is expressing a desire for continuing situation - taking time. (The second instance is different again from I would like you to take your time, which, I suppose, would be translated as J'aimerais que tu prennes ton temps).

Is this yet another example of how English is often better for expressing nuances, or is there an alternative way to clarify the difference in French?

My point of view- its equivalent in english to say- I don't like anything but apples...if you put this in mind you will not get confused.  so it means you like only apples.

 Je n'aime que les pommes.

could someone explain for me like broken down what is the source of this so my brain can understand lol like ok im sorry this is hard to explain but for example "je" = i, "m'" = iop, "to me", "apelle"= je form of s'apeller. so like, what does each thing, "il," "y," and "a" mean? i think il is 3rd person singular so it works as "it?" and idk about the y and the "a" is 3rd person singular of avoir, "has"?

I have found a number of diving sites that use < plongée libre >, as well as < plongée en apnée >. Decathlon uses both in its advertising, and Collins also translates 'free-diving' to < plongée libre >.

And for snorkelling - Larousse gives < faire de la plongée avec un tuba >, which seems to be about the only expression that gets the red line. (A mask is not essential equipment for snorkelling)

https://www.larousse.fr/dictionnaires/anglais-francais/snorkelling/612936

What is triggering the use of 'en' in the sentence 'le destin en a décidé autrement' ? Is it the fact that 'décider' implies a clause starting with 'de' - or something else ?

I often can't see a simple 'de...' clause that could be interchanged with the 'en'.