Question about "De tous les mensonges que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"Translated as: "Out of all the lies you told, none is believable."
Is this French example used simply to illustrate French grammar?
Because as a statement of logic, the statement is nonsense. The second half of the statement is superfluous. Lies are ipso facto not credible (that is the nature of a lie). So of course 100% of the time they are not credible.
As an analogy, no one would say: "Out of all the green marbles you gave me, none is orange."
If instead you said: "Out of all the statements you told, none is believable" (or correct in French: "De tous les choses que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"?) or "Out of all the marbles you gave me, none is orange", these full sentences have logical meaning.
Translated as: "Out of all the lies you told, none is believable."
Is this French example used simply to illustrate French grammar?
Because as a statement of logic, the statement is nonsense. The second half of the statement is superfluous. Lies are ipso facto not credible (that is the nature of a lie). So of course 100% of the time they are not credible.
As an analogy, no one would say: "Out of all the green marbles you gave me, none is orange."
If instead you said: "Out of all the statements you told, none is believable" (or correct in French: "De tous les choses que tu as dit, aucun n'est crédible"?) or "Out of all the marbles you gave me, none is orange", these full sentences have logical meaning.
Somehow, I thought we always use "de" before a plural noun preceded by an adjective?
I just wanted to say that the video in this lesson was super helpful. I struggled so much with this concept and now I get it right all the time. So, thank you!
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