French language Q&A Forum

I thought that "Y" cannot be used with regard to people. But  have just been given a correct answer as Il pense à sa famille. Elle y pense aussi. Is family not a unit of people?

Hello, 

This is the sentence I'm talking about: He was sick all day yesterday.

This is why I'm confused: 

a) It could be imparfait because I believe that when you talk about health, you use the imparfait.

b) It could be passé composé because you know the time-frame of when it (him being sick) took place: all day yesterday.

Hello, Why can't we use admettre? j'ai admis ma defaite....

My reflexive response to translation of 'We opened the windows out of fear there might be a gas leak.' was 'Nous avons ouvert les fenêtres de peur qu'il ne puisse y avoir une fuite de gaz.' given that there is a sense of conditional pouvoir in the translation ('there could be or 'might be', rather than the softer 'we're not sure' sense of avoir in the subjunctive. Any thoughts?

I remember hearing people sing a translation of Davy Crockett that included the line "l'homme qui n'a jamais peur."  Can't "the fearless Gaul" also be translated as "le Gaulois sans peur"? 

im unable to find a translation that makes sense for this phrase?

could someone explain for me like broken down what is the source of this so my brain can understand lol like ok im sorry this is hard to explain but for example "je" = i, "m'" = iop, "to me", "apelle"= je form of s'apeller. so like, what does each thing, "il," "y," and "a" mean? i think il is 3rd person singular so it works as "it?" and idk about the y and the "a" is 3rd person singular of avoir, "has"?