French language Q&A Forum

In the lesson it explicitly states "Note that in French, if you're using après + [verbe], we consider that this action always takes place in the past of when you're speaking. "

However the following was a question for the tests on the lesson.

"After going food shopping, I'll help you with your homework." This is neither 'said in the past' NOR actually already happed(ie 'in the past'). While inelegant, it means "After i go shopping I will help you ..."  The stipulated correct answer was "Après avoir fait les courses, je t'aiderai avec tes devoirs.'

Seems to fit the following translation "Apres je aurai fait les courses, je t'aiderai avec tes devoirs. Since both aactions are scheduled for the future with the homework help being predicated on the shopping being done.

Does “ Ce n'est vraiment pas juste !” translate to “It’s not really fair!” or “It’s really not fair!”? In English the latter has a much stronger sense of injustice associated with it.

C'est la rue la plus petite dans la ville. It's a specific road in a specific town so why is dans wrong? Just as it's not wrong in il y a une boulangerie dans la ville? (Your example)

"Je pense que les gens qui considerent ce jeu puerile..."  The speaker, the "gens" and the game are all masculine, so why is puerile in the feminine form?  Should it not be pueril?

In the writing exercise, the author gives blood every Saturday. I used “je donne le sang”, but the only correct answer was “je donne mon sang”. I am used to thinking about always using the definite article for parts of the body. Why would this not apply in this situation?

Thank you!