French language Q&A Forum

Is opposé used rather than en face de ever?  In what circumstance would I use opposé(e)?  Would I be understood if I used opposé and not en face de? Merci.

Couple of queries:-

In the sentence ' As I grew up, it was her melancholy ...' the advice is to use c'est. Why not c'était?

and,

In the sentence 'Barbara, as you used to sing (it) so perfectly, our most beautiful love story will always be you., the 'it' refers to the 'love story' which is feminine so 'comme tu le chantais' should be 'la'?

Thanks

Why is the correct answer « fusilier » not « tirailleur »?

I don’t know why my answer wouldn’t be qu’ in this instance, rather than the unshortened que. I’d appreciate guidance.

I don't understand when to use dont or que.

It is my observation that a Frenchman will do almost anything to avoid double objective pronouns - for fear of making mistakes and because they sound fussy, awkward, and a bit snobbish. As they are used less and less frequently, the "correct" order is being lost even to the French. I have been encouraged by my teachers to reformulate to avoid this mare's nest. So

Je lui ai donné cela plutôt que je le lui ai donné. 

Please help! Text: "Le matin on fait le lit. On le couvre pour faire joli et bien rangé." I translated it loosely as "we cover it(the bed) for 'it' to be pretty and tidy"  But why is it not '.. pour le faire joli et bien rangé ' (why is the object pronoun not repeated??) Without the object pronoun (pour le faire) couldnt it also mean "we cover it (the bed) to be 'pretty and tidy'...(we do it so we appear to be nice and organized). Bottom line... what is the grammar explanation, if any, for no 'le/la' between pour and faire in the text.

If you are refering "vous"  formally to single person would  "Vous n'êtes pas arrivé en retard". Arrivé without the "s".

https://i.ibb.co/Ch7Q76z/question.png

Does the sentence 'Je bien sûr nomme...' also work ?