French language Q&A Forum

Today, I got the same question: "Sarah ________ la salade à Michel," but this time the answer was "passe," with no reflexive pronoun!

The same question can NOT have different answers.  Please explain, this is driving me crazy!

why is it feminine in this case?

Hello! I'm confused about the sentence: "Pour que tous les habitants comprennent, le roi François Ier décide en 1539 .... " If the English translation takes place in the past tense (the king François decided), why does the phrase seem to be conjugated in the present tense? Why not "le roi François Ier a décidé?" Merci!

As a native English speaker, interrogations makes no sense in this context.  The suggested vocabulary noted "existential questions" but it never appeared.  Instead, we got interrogations.   Seems like an oversight.

A kwiz I took marked "seize heures moins vingt" as incorrect (correct answer "quinze heures quarante").Am I to understand that you can't use "moins" constructions for >12 hours at all? In this lesson you only mention "moins le quart" being wrong.

un pont ancien     .... d'une autre époque ......     n'est- ce pas?

un ancien pont        ... a former bridge ?????    selon mon livre de grammaire

My translating tool says that "des patins à parquet" are "floor gliders."  Anyone have any idea what kind of shoes they might be?

Could a sentence like "Pâques est la fête la deuxieme plus célébrée en France, après Noël" work?

I am confused by this example: 

"I haven't left France for three years:" "Je n'ai pas quitté la France depuis trois ans."

The lesson says "we use PC because the negation indicates the action wasn't done during the entirety of that past period. BUT PC is used to express actions which were completed or finished in the past. 

This example shows it WAS NOT completed, so why PC and not imparfait??

Thank you.