French language Q&A Forum

is, for example, j'habite (or j'hésite) spelt like that even in written texts? If so why?

I’m wondering if there’s a logic for having a singular beetroot in this phrase? Usually you’d make it with more than one, as with "tarte aux pommes"

I understand that the partative article is used for uncountable amounts. e.g. 'je mange des pâtes'. It is clear that pasta is never going to be counted, so it makes sense it would be partative des.

However if i say 'je mange des carottes', I could mean a big plate of chopped up carrots which are uncountable, which would be partative des. 

Or I could mean I am eating 3 whole carrots which are definitely countable. So would this be indefinite des?

Is it the context that would define which article is used? 

I know that typically, retourner is used to mean "to go back" and rendre is used to mean "to give back." But on this page: https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/auxiliary-verbs-2/ , which discusses using variable auxiliary verbs in the passé composé, it mentions that retourner can also be used transitively and in that case, it changes its meaning to "to give back." So in the passé composé, can retourner be used in the same way that rendre is?

For example, would both of these be correct?

1. J'ai rendu le livre à la bibliothèque.

2. J'ai retourné le livre à la bibliothèque.

Quand is an indicator of futur anterieur, when quand is used with simple, isn't next tense is anterieur?
My mentor taught it something like that..

The title of the note is grammatically incorrect: "Learn how to conjugate *of* conduire". Sowt it arrrt

why is recevrez, the future tense being asked for?  wouldn't ce weekend indicate a "near future action " and so take the present tense?

"Je ne manque de rien." is given as the correct translation for "I lack nothing". Why the "ne"? Why not just "Je manque de rien"? It has been about three years since I paid attention to French, and I am really rusty.

I am doing B1 French and reading Camus La Peste( hard going sometimes) On page 173 he says"elles suffirent" which I take to mean they were enough,and I struggled with the conjugation but I found it as passive simple on the Lawless website. I interrogated Gemini AI and it suggested that passive simple is a compound tense requiring auxiliary from etre...despite its name. It also suggested Camus often used passe simple in a stylistic for without the auxiliary. So,is the Lawless conjugation right,and is elles suffirent passe simple, and please,what is going on?