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13,343 questions • 28,488 answers • 803,925 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
13,343 questions • 28,488 answers • 803,925 learners
Is it a fair assumption that all monosyllabic adjectives ending in “er” are pronounced the same when converted to the feminine “ère” ending? “Cher”and “chère”, for example? Whereas multi syllable “er” adjectives must change pronunciation in the feminine? “Dernier” versus “dernière”?
I always assumed that the accent grave was added to certain words to change the stress and pronunciation. If so, why is the accent grave added to words like “Cher” in the feminine if the pronunciation does not change?
Does this question make sense?
Thank you!
Hi, in a reversed expression such as
Qu'est-ce qui te plaît chez Anna ?
which is the subject and which is the object?
I’m guessing that the subject is that aspect of Anna’s personality which causes ‘you’ to like her. Therefore, since ‘you’ receive pleasure from that part of her personality, ‘you’ are the object.
Is that correct?
Thanks in advance!
I understand une dizaine means 10 or so. As do all the other examples in the lesson. Therefore, what is the difference with the last example?
Je veux deux douzaines de pommes.... Why does this also not mean:
I want two dozen or so/or approximately - apples> ?
Thank you.
Why do we say "J'adore la France" but "J'aime Paris" ? Why dont we need to add "le" before "Paris"?
Why can’t merci de venir be translated as thanks for coming?
I've re-read the lesson on when to use "d'autres" and "des autres" and I don't quite understand why "the taste of others" is "le goût des autres". I thought that would only be the case if it was specific other people "the taste of the others", and in the case of this film title it should be "le goût d'autres" - a general case of the taste of unspecified others. What am I missing here please?
This is a question of the usage of French definite article “le”. I have encountered following two French sentences:
(1) Il faut que vous puissiez parler français avant d’aller en France.
(2) Pour apprandre le français, il faut que vous regardiez des films français.
As can be seen from these two sentences, you can notice that the phrase “ …parler français…”in the sentence (1) appears without the French definite article of “le”, but that the phrase “…apprandre le français…” in the sentence (2) appears with the French definite article of “le”.
Why doesn’t the definite article of “le” need in the sentence (1)? And why does the definite article of “le” need in the sentence (2)?
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