French language Q&A Forum

Why we say au tavail not à travail ??

The English translation of this ' By the time he's had his lunch, you can have a shower' is agreed by 50 of my fb friends to be ungrammatical and not something an english person would say. The wrong answer - the time it takes him to have lunch, you could have a shower, is much more what we would say, although we'd say 'In the time..'  and you might say'In the time it takes him to have lunch, you can have a shower' although could is better. Could someone please pay attention to this. It feels wrong consistently having to select a fake English answer.

This sentence was an example:  Tu as failli y rester.   The translation was you almost died.

Couldn't it also be Tu as failli mourir?

When ‘Tu aides moi’ becomes ‘aide-moi’, the ‘s’ in the verb ‘aide’ is lost, as in the other example sentences. Does that mean that in affirmative imperative sentences the verb is conjugated in the ‘il/elle/on’ form? 

Thank you!