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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,667 questions • 31,805 answers • 964,027 learners
In the B2 writing exercise, occurs the following phrase: le Ministère a finalement confirmé ce lundi for: the Ministry finally confirmed this Monday.
If ce is a demonstrative adjective, this construction seems incorrect. I translated it as le Ministère l'a confirmé lundi.
Why is this jusque and not jusqu'à?
Why is On besoin d'amore incorrect? Wouldn't either On or Nous be correct?
I still don't understand whey, "Qu'est-ce que le fois gras," Is not an acceptable way of saying "What is?" QUE (what) est-ce (is it) le fois gras.
Why is it any less acceptable than "Qu'est-ce que c'est que" The explanations just don't make sense to me. Could you clarify?
Ce jour-là tu as retenu la parole.
and the only accepted answer was:
Ce jour-là tu as retenu parole.
Could someone advise on why the former is incorrect? Is it idiomatic?
thanks
A French national suggests that DURANT emphasizes the such and such occurs/occurred from the very beginning of the time interval to the very end, while PENDANT does not. This seems to be the difference between "I spent the entire week doing such and such" versus "I did such and such during the week."
If that it is the case, there may be value in adding that to the lesson. I have noticed BTW that DURANT appears in conversations much less that PENDANT, perhaps because of the nuance cited above.
The first answer is “C'est mon époque”, but why use mon (instead of ma) when époque is female? Compare this with one of the other answers “C’est ma période...”.
Hello. My very first question on the forum. In fact I have a question on the use of "des" rather than marcher, but the guidance on the question led me here. I am not clear why it is not "les" danseurs being a generic dancer? Probably some grammar rule that I have missed along the way, but if someone could point me in the right direction I will do my homework!
My question has to do with the use of the hyphen. Am I correct in assuming that when the pronoun comes after the verb a hyphen must be added?
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