French language Q&A Forum

où on a degouté des specialities lyonnaises/ où on dégoutait des specialities lyonnaises (where we enjoyed Lyonnaise specialities)

I don't understand why this can't be in the imparfait as there's no end time. Is it passé composé because it is NOW finished?  It seems like this is something that happened over a period of time in the past, not quickly, so I used imparfait.

The first answer is “C'est mon époque”, but why use mon (instead of ma) when époque is female? Compare this with one of the other answers “C’est ma période...”.

« bien qu’on ne s’entend pas, c’est quand même mon frère ».  this is not the right place to ask this question but the example is here!  

what is the rule that says « c’est quand même » instead of « il est quand même » mon frère?

In the writing challenge "Les noces d'or de mes grands-parents" the phrase "Et ce qu'ils se sont déclaré était tellement émouvant" appears. Why is there no plural agreement on the verb "déclaré "?

It sees to be the same case as this example in the lesson "Conjugate reflexive verbs (+être) in Le Passé Composé (conversational past)":

Elles se sont disputées = They had an argument.

Is it because the verb has an object which precedes it and the rule of agreement with a prior object takes precedence over the rule of agreement with the subject?

Something like case 3 1/2 here:https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/agreement-with-pronominal-verbs/

I have it in my notes that “après que” uses the indicative tense, so is there a reason why the subjunctive is used in this occasion ?