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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,864 questions • 32,303 answers • 1,003,744 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,864 questions • 32,303 answers • 1,003,744 learners
I notice that 'nul' is used in the response for 'useless' in the passages yet 'inutile' is accepted as the preferred translation in the explanatory paragraph at the end. Why is this so?
Why does the quiz mark my answer wrong when i choose: j'ai donné mon ordinateur ancien à la associe....it says correct option is '...mon ancien ordinateur...' but wouldn't that mean 'the last/previous computer that i owned' as per the rule described ?
Is this an exception as in French there are so many exceptions to a rule :( ?
Or is it a mistake in the quiz ? Please clarify . Thanks
The question I'm looking at says "Tu ne veux pas savoir ________ je pense de ton costume" and the correct answer indicated is "ce que." However, because it's "... _______ je pense DE" shouldn't it be "ce dont?"
Similar examples would be:
"Tu sais ce dont je suis capable."
"C'est ce dont j'ai peur."
"Je ne sais pas à quoi tu penses." (This is 'penser à' instead of 'penser de')
What am I missing here?
The guidance says 'any object is placed between the de and the infinitive' so I'm puzzled as to why the example given doesn't end 'avant d'une solution trouver' instead of the given 'avant de trouver une solution'. Merci!
I received this question in a quiz: "Les femmes travaillent: ________ lavent et les autres cuisinent."
Isn't "quelques-unes" another correct way to say "some of them?"
Bonjour! I was wondering why the verb acheter is as achetées rather than acheté ? Do we know that the person who bought the boots is female or is this another rule that I may have missed ?
Merci :)
The correct kwiz answers indicate "Bien sûr qu'on se déteste!" translates to both "Of course we hate each other!" and "Of course we hate ourselves!"
These English translations have different meanings -- i.e., "I hate you and you hate me" versus "I hate myself and you hate yourself."
My question: does the French sentence also imply these two distinctly different meanings?
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