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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,803 questions • 32,077 answers • 985,123 learners
I still don't understand why "les" is the answer but not "ses". Please explain, thanks!
Why is the Imparfait used here instead of the Passe Compose?
Cyril m'a dit que ton SMS disait dix-neuf heures ...
For this sentence:
Je ferai parvenir le dossier à Jean Des que possible. The answer is je lui ferai parvenir le dossier Des que possible.
But when I have Je ferai parvenir ce document à votre avocat it translates to Je le lui ferai parvenir.
Can someone help me?
Thank you
so does pronouncing the s work like dix and six?
I just took a test on this subject. What makes no sense to me is that all the test answers use the word must ( must have been, gone, lost, etc.) Since one uses the future of avoir or être and the passé comp ending, wouldn't the proper translation be will have been, etc? When I go to a lesson, not one example sentence uses the word must. Furthermore, wouldn't common sense tell you that devoir should be used somehow if must is desired? Help-frustrated.
'que les gens me donnent' - was the answer for 'have been giving me'. I thought that the French here meant (in your answer) - 'that the people 'are' giving me'.
In the grammar lesson, it explains that you can use either "en" or "de" in "un sac .... cuir". So to avoid confusion, would it not be better to show that both "en" and "de" are also both acceptable answers in "Je possède un blouson _____ cuir". Or are they?
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