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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,013 questions • 32,548 answers • 1,025,095 learners
Hello, I've just done the question
How would you say "By the time he came, I had fixed the machine." ?
for which the correct answer was...
Le temps qu'il vienne, j'avais réparé la machine.And not ‘le temps qu’il soit venu, j’avais réparé la machine’ ?
For me, this is a past event and ‘came’ is the past tense but in French you actually need to say « by the time he comes, I had fixed the machine » in English (speaking, at least)?
Thanks :-)
...as “which respect all the norms”. I’d translate this as “which are in accordance with all the standards”. Also, I’d say “glare protection standards” instead of “glare protection norms”.
I entered this (il ferait du soleil) instead of the answer Kwiziq wanted (il ferait beau). Doesn't il ferait du soleil work as well?
dans seem to fit with the lesson. I thought that 'pendant' would have been the correct answer. I cannot work out why it isn't. Help please!
would translate as: mes mains were not stopping trembling. I get very confused over this particular usage. Most of the use of imparfait that I get wrong are due to this rule. Could you explain it better?
Elsewhere on the site, there is an example sentence: Ils sucent encore leur pouce. They're still sucking their thumbs. Why doesn't leur pouce become le/la/les pouce(s)?
Why use "on" to say " we" drank, we took etc.
Can the Le Passe compose be used in formal writing. If not, then which tense is it replaced with?
Why "Il a mangé la moitié de son pain" but "Il n'a mangé qu'une moitié du biscuit" ? The grammar note does not explain this.
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