Both indirect and direct object pronouns used with past tense, and faire + infinitive in one sentenceHello Kwiziq,
I was just doing an exercise on another site, where they used a complex sentence to say this:
"Ces jolies robes, je vous les ai fait raccommoder."
It made me think if it's a correct construction or not, because in these cases I always see "le/la/les" before the infinitive. Maybe I missing something?
Would the sentence "Ces jolies robes, je vous ai fait les raccommoder" imply the same meaning, is one more correct than the other, or perhaps they both work (without any ambiguity)?
Also, thank you all in advance. Thanks to your exercises and easy-to-understand explanations, I could finally break my plateau and become more confident when I'm talking to someone.
I had the same problem that Kathleen had even after I listened to it a number of times. Of course, once I saw the correct version, it was wonderfully clear!
Hello Kwiziq,
I was just doing an exercise on another site, where they used a complex sentence to say this:
"Ces jolies robes, je vous les ai fait raccommoder."
It made me think if it's a correct construction or not, because in these cases I always see "le/la/les" before the infinitive. Maybe I missing something?
Would the sentence "Ces jolies robes, je vous ai fait les raccommoder" imply the same meaning, is one more correct than the other, or perhaps they both work (without any ambiguity)?
Also, thank you all in advance. Thanks to your exercises and easy-to-understand explanations, I could finally break my plateau and become more confident when I'm talking to someone.
I've read the comments and know that this lesson is being reviewed. It can't come soon enough. It really is poorly written, and I'm just not going to test on it until it's edited, changed or whatever. Will try to learn the topic via some other means.
Marie était (l'imparfait, être) réveillée (past participle, singular, fem)par les oiseaux tous les matins. Why not use the infinitive rather than past participle? or should it be passe compose?
Bonsoir,
I'd like to know if the lack of the "ne explétif" is considered a grammar mistake or if it is optional in writing in the cases where it's supposed to be used when the verb is in the negative form.
Thanks in advance.
Does this rule is valid when the object pronouns are me,te,nous,vous
il nous ai parlé or il nous ai parlés
Whic one is true?
I wish your helps thank you so much
A number of places are have a disputed status; in these cases would the form used vary with the opinion of the speaker? For instance, whilst Kwiziq states «au Québec» (as if it's a country), I can find «dans le Québec» being used.
Could someone manage to accidentally imply a particular opinion by using one form rather than another? (Presumably, this would apply more strongly to a less common form.)
(And in trying to find this out, I've discovered in/to Taiwan is «à Taïwan», following the rule for a city.)
Can someone explain the structure of this phrase: "j'ai cru à une blague de mes amis"? I would've thought the translation would be more like, "J'ai cru que c'était une blague de mes amis".
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