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15,052 questions • 32,730 answers • 1,041,103 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
15,052 questions • 32,730 answers • 1,041,103 learners
I notice the omission of any article to go with jeux in the phrase 'l'opportunité d'essayer différents jeux'. Is this something to do with the word différents? For example, if there were no adjective, you would surely say 'l'opportunité d'essayer des jeux'...?
In the last question I chose to use sera and not va être and I wonder why this was considered to be incorrect. I know the difference and if being rigid yes, it's wrong but of course some people will say "will be" rather than "going to be" so some latitude would be helpful.
This struck me as more difficult than many B2 exercises. I wonder if others felt the same.
I agree with the Kwiziq team members and some others that the words all sound clear, with my connection anyway. After I have completed the exercise and re-listened to the whole passage it magically becomes very clear. My only query is the word "honnêteté" where, despite numerous listens, I can't hear all the syllables, and I was wondering whether it is usually pronounced as spelled "honnêteté", or in common usage is simply pronounced "honnêté"
I'm wondering why in the sentence: "...during that period, I did not have to take the train.", the imperfect of devoir is used instead of the perfect tense? Since it is a specific and closed period of time (three weeks), doesn't that mean it's not an ongoing action? Thanks.
Let me know if this is correct: in the passé composé, the past participle agrees with the direct object? The answer was "Tu les as vues" - the direct object was feminine plural - thus the -es to the past participle "vu." I experimented with Google translate, and this seems to be the rule but I haven't found it on Progress with Lawless French, so I wanted to double check.
Désormais is not given as an option. Is there a reason for that ?
I'm a little confused as to why 'impressionnés' is in the plural. Is this because it is a passive voice?
Merci, Steve
So there is no difference in French between ' i haven't any more chocolate' and 'I haven't any chocolate left'? That was my confusion, I thought it was a trick question.
question was write 25 to midnight, previously been told that past noon should use 24 hour clock so wrote vingt-trois trente-cinc , but yet again it wrong and said minuit moins vingt cinq
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