il n'en est venu aucun.......??Bonjour,
I found very interesting sentence causing me a headache.... "Il n'en est venu aucun".
According to lessons, the sentence is negated by placing the two parts of the negation on each side of the auxiliary verb (avoir or être) in a compound sentence like the passé..
However, as you can see in this sentence, one part of negation, "aucun" is located at the end of sentence. And I found this sentence from a dictionary and so there must be no grammer problem...
I've been searching and googling for hours but did not get any to understand the sentence...So, May I ask someone to kindly explain this please?
Thank you so much in advance!
I don't see why this is plus que parfait. This refers to an action completed in the past. Seems to me "je te l'ai dit" would serve just as well or better.
Why not say, Elle et ma sour? (It is 'specific').
I don't have the best ears but I don't really hear the first syllable of 'Sinon'. I just hear the second syllable, i.e. 'non'. If I were a little more experienced, I could have guessed 'Sinon' because 'non' makes no sense. Anyone else with the same issue?
Would était endormis bé acceptable here?
Bonjour,
I found very interesting sentence causing me a headache.... "Il n'en est venu aucun".
According to lessons, the sentence is negated by placing the two parts of the negation on each side of the auxiliary verb (avoir or être) in a compound sentence like the passé..
However, as you can see in this sentence, one part of negation, "aucun" is located at the end of sentence. And I found this sentence from a dictionary and so there must be no grammer problem...
I've been searching and googling for hours but did not get any to understand the sentence...So, May I ask someone to kindly explain this please?
Thank you so much in advance!
I can't seem to find a straight answer about the use of the hyphen in this situation. I know that object pronouns are attached to the positive imperative verb with a hyphen, so you would write, "Lisez-le!" I am also informed that "ça" is a pronoun. But somehow, I find "Lisez ça", not "Lisez-ça!" and I wonder if anybody has any thoughts about why.
How could I say "I can go a day without you" (for example) using the same "se passer de"? I know we can say "Je peux me passer de toi pendant un jour" but could I eliminate the "pendant" and say something along the lines of "Je peux me passer de toi un jour" or "Je peux me passer un jour de toi" (but here you have to split them)?
If not, what would be the correct way to say it? Maybe "pendant" still has to be there in cases such as these?
Now that is bizarre!
je pouvais me voir faire exactement la même chose! :)
Regardez mes fous cheveux! [Look at my crazy hair!]
Is this correct? What are the rules for the before and after placement of Fou?
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