French language Q&A Forum

While I understand that the phrase: “Où mets-je mes chaussures d'habitude ?” is technically correct for the exersise,   I am having a hard time mentally processing when I would ever use first-person inversion.  To me, it sounds incredibly snooty and stuck up and something I would never want to suggest that I am. 

Is there a situation I would be inclined to use the first person inversion for asking a question, and why?

Why is mets pronounced May instead of Meh? in the lesson A1 le jour de Noël?

If I wanted to write the sentence below in French, could I, using après que? Or would it have to be reworded? Would I still use the indicative, even though the action has not yet taken place and is uncertain, or is this a case where après que might take the subjunctive?

“After you arrive/have arrived home safely, then and only then will I go to bed.”

Vous pourrez également explorer la diversité culturelle des pays francophones en assistant notamment à nos rencontres littéraires, et en discuter les enjeux lors de nos conférences et débats d'idées. 

In this sentence, I'm thinking that in English, there would be parallel construction between "en assistant" and "en discuter." We would say "in attending" and "discussing," but I'm noticing that in French, "discuter" is the infinitive form of the verb rather than the gerund (as in "assistant"). Are the verb forms that were chosen in French optional? And in French, is the lack of parallel construction perfectly acceptable? Could this sentence have also used:

 both "en assistant" and "en discutant"  as the verb forms

OR both "en assister" and "en discuter?"

Thanks for your thoughts on this!