French language Q&A Forum

Sorry for a rather niche question, it may be a situation that doesn’t often arise, but I’m wondering where the COD and COI pronouns go in a sentence with subject-verb inversion? (I found a reference to y and en)

After eighteen months of study I still can't really understand this. 'Les Français mangeaient les escargots' seems to be ok as an alternative to 'des escargots'. But 'Tout ce qui ressemble à la viande rouge' as an alternative to 'de la viande rouge' is not. To me it's the same kind of statement; and to have to say 'ressemble à de la viande rouge' sounds like 'resembles some red meat'...

as title says

It seems that the examples are in bad taste. Do French people talk about people so subjectively?

The only time polite people talk about appearances is when they are describing a person wanted by police for a crime.

WhyWhy "le premier jour de 'Hanoucca" and not "le premier jour d'Hanoucca"

Today, I got the same question: "Sarah ________ la salade à Michel," but this time the answer was "passe," with no reflexive pronoun!

The same question can NOT have different answers.  Please explain, this is driving me crazy!

The above question linked to this page, though it’s not one of the examples given (can’t find "il y a longtemps" elsewhere on the site)

It’s translated as "This story happened a long time ago" and I’m wondering why it’s not "a very long time ago", or is "très" needed for the distant past?

Hi. Twice I've been marked wrong when I omitted the "heures" when filling in the blanks for a library or such open from one hour to another. It appears that the computer isn't recognizing the section of the lesson ("between to times"). Why? Very confusing.

I came here after missing a question that used "nulle parte" instead of "nulle part".  Is there some agreement of "parte" that I'm missing?