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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,223 questions • 30,829 answers • 906,416 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,223 questions • 30,829 answers • 906,416 learners
In another French course, some years ago, I was given the sentence :
"Ça fait trois ans que je l'ai, et je n'ai pour ainsi dire pas eu d'ennui avec."
This appears to end with a preposition. Is it wrong?
This discussion has me confused- it seems contradictory. The question was L'année ______ Napoléon a été sacré empereur. I knew that 'où' would be correct, but from comments in the thread it stated that 'pendant laquelle' would also be correct. So I tried that but it was marked wrong. I'm also confused as to whether 'dans laquelle' would be ok. There are comments in the thread that imply it is ok, but others that it "doesn't sound right". Can someone clarify? Thanks
I'm curious about why there's always a question about coudre, moudre and hair in the C1 tests. I understand that they're irregular and need to be learnt, but the questions are always in the present tense, and it seems pretty straightforward for C1. Wouldn't it be more appropriate to make them e.g. A2, and include a wider range of irregular verbs? I feel there are other questions that would be more appropriate and useful for C1.
Not complaining :-), just curious.
Can I just check the spelling of the second "apparus" in Céline’s reply to Jenny-Anne?
She says "The correct answer was - Both sentences are correct
as you can say Puis, nous sommes apparus and Puis nous avons apparus"
In the bottom half of the quick lesson it says:
"- the more elegant
Comment se fait-il que ... ?-> Note the use of inverted question form to emphasise the elegant structure."
Did you leave out 'cela' between 'Comment' and 'se fait-il'?
I'm curious about why we say "Je lui parle", but "Je pense à lui. Can we say, "Je parle à lui" and Je lui pense"? Why does "parler" use an indirect object pronoun and "penser" use a stress pronoun? What is the reasoning behind this? Is it something to do with the meaning of the verbs, or is there no logic to it?
Is it usual in French to use “parfum” to describe the taste of food? Or is the speaker describing the smell of the food? If the speaker is speaking of the good smell of food, is this a usual expression concerning food as well?
Just to make the point that in UK English, it’s commoner to say "nowhere I’d rather be" or "nowhere that I’d rather be" - this avoids the where-where sound but also makes it harder to remember we need nulle part où rather than nulle part que.
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