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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,995 questions • 32,510 answers • 1,023,605 learners
During the lesson it is explained to use lui/leur when you have the "à" before the object and to use la/le/les when there is a possessive pronoun before, for example:
"Il va appeler ses parents" --> "Il va les appeler"
So why using lui in this case?
Il y a quelques jours j’ai écouté un podcast sur lequel la présentatrice a parlé de ‘faire les courses’.
Elle a décrit un panier avec deux petites roues qu’on utilise pour apporter les achats chez lui. (Surtout utilisés par les grand-mères!). Je pense elle a dit que ce panier s’appelle « un chariot », et the trolley on utilise au supermarché s’appelle « un caddie » C’est correcte ou pas?
In the lesson it states: "A rarer occurence is when ainsi que is followed by a conjugated verb (in the Indicative) to express (just) as", however, the example uses the Imparfait:
"Tout se passe ainsi que je l'avais prévu."
There would seem to be a mismatch here ... could you please shed some light on this?
regards, Scott
I'm trying to get to grips with noun complements as well as the content of this lesson. Both involve de and d' and maybe des (I am confused!) Can you suggest other lessons that could help with this thorny subject please.
This is a question of the usage of French definite article “le”. I have encountered following two French sentences:
(1) Il faut que vous puissiez parler français avant d’aller en France.
(2) Pour apprandre le français, il faut que vous regardiez des films français.
As can be seen from these two sentences, you can notice that the phrase “ …parler français…”in the sentence (1) appears without the French definite article of “le”, but that the phrase “…apprandre le français…” in the sentence (2) appears with the French definite article of “le”.
Why doesn’t the definite article of “le” need in the sentence (1)? And why does the definite article of “le” need in the sentence (2)?
this essay is straight to the point love it
Since the Czech Republic changed their name to Czechia, has the name in French changed? If so what is it? Has the gender changed?
But if you do use possessive adjectives when another person is involved, why can't I say "François reste dehors, ses chaussures couvertes de boue." François is another person. Am I misunderstanding and what you meant by "other person"?
How does it work then? Do you use"les pieds" to say "He washes his feet" but "ses pieds" if I'm washing his feet? Is that right?
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