Both indirect and direct object pronouns used with past tense, and faire + infinitive in one sentenceHello Kwiziq,
I was just doing an exercise on another site, where they used a complex sentence to say this:
"Ces jolies robes, je vous les ai fait raccommoder."
It made me think if it's a correct construction or not, because in these cases I always see "le/la/les" before the infinitive. Maybe I missing something?
Would the sentence "Ces jolies robes, je vous ai fait les raccommoder" imply the same meaning, is one more correct than the other, or perhaps they both work (without any ambiguity)?
Also, thank you all in advance. Thanks to your exercises and easy-to-understand explanations, I could finally break my plateau and become more confident when I'm talking to someone.
(1) Can you use "désavantage" which, on the face of it, is the obvious word to use for 'disadvantage'?
(2) Can you use 'pile' instead of 'batterie'?
Or is there some nuance of meaning which I'm overlooking here?
Hi
Could someone please help and explain this one to me?
Thanks in advance
2Which sentence is NOT correct ?L'homme pour qui il travaille est très sympaLes enfants avec qui nous parlons sont françaisLa maison dans qui il habite est très vieilleTu connais la fille avec qui je suis parti en vacancesI don't understand why "depuis" is used here despite the fact that we use "depuis" for ongoing actions as stated in the lesson below.
Using the present tense (Le Présent) - and not the compound past (Le Passé Composé) - in sentences with "depuis" (since/for) in French (French Prepositions of Time)
I don't understand how "Marie a manqué l'école" means "Marie didn't go to school". There isn't aller in the sentence so how does that work?
I don't know what party favours are, let alone what the French word for them might be.
Salut,
I was wondering if someone could help me understand the following sentence:
Ils me feront découvrir cette ville bilingue que je ne connais pas encore
Could one also use "Ils me montront cette ville bilingue..."?
Thanks
Can we say that if même precedes the noun, it means "same" and if it comes after the noun, it means "very/itself"?
Why does the phrase take this form and not 'une lecture analytique d'œuvres' ?
Hello Kwiziq,
I was just doing an exercise on another site, where they used a complex sentence to say this:
"Ces jolies robes, je vous les ai fait raccommoder."
It made me think if it's a correct construction or not, because in these cases I always see "le/la/les" before the infinitive. Maybe I missing something?
Would the sentence "Ces jolies robes, je vous ai fait les raccommoder" imply the same meaning, is one more correct than the other, or perhaps they both work (without any ambiguity)?
Also, thank you all in advance. Thanks to your exercises and easy-to-understand explanations, I could finally break my plateau and become more confident when I'm talking to someone.
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