French language Q&A Forum

This sentence is in the past tense, but why didn't we use subjonctif passe?

The lesson reads:  

In French, you'll use the adverb pire when:

But isn’t this just another example of using pire as an adjective? Or am I missing something important?

Cheers

Dusty

A small niggle.  Prior to the sentence, "I am not sure", I believe there is no indication as to whether the customer is male or female.  The exercise corrects the response, sûr, to sûre.  How were we to know that the customer is a woman without being told ?

Why is ou wrong or 'nearly right' here: Les citoyens français peuvent voter aux élections locales du pays de l'UE ou________ ils sont installés.

Team - the speaker here is terrific. Just the right speed, wonderful clarity of diction. Much needed for such a tough exercise! Bien joué.

Should this example:
J'ai acheté une jupe ! - Oh, c'est cher, les jupes !I bought a dress! - Oh, skirts are expensive!

Translate to:
I bought a skirt! - Oh, skirts are expensive!

I'm confused. Doesn't ..ing in English denote the present participle? In French that would suggest "leaving" would be expressed as "partant", "talking" as "parlant" etc; not the  use of the infinitive. 

What can I do to make the accent grave stay?  I press it; it appears; and then it disappears when I press return.  It is then recorded as a mistake.

My best guess right now is that à is used with definite articles, and dans is used with indefinite ones. So "Je vais au parc," and "Je vais dans un parc." Is that correct?

Is it equally correct to say “Je me suis lavé LA tête” and “J’ai lavé MA tête”?